I am working on a question and was looking for some help. The question is
Suppose that $\mathbf{v}_1 = (1,2)$, $\mathbf{v}_2 = (2,-1)$ and that the basis $\beta$ is $\beta = \left \langle \mathbf{v}_1 , \mathbf{v}_2 \right \rangle$. Let $T$ be the linear transformation from $\mathbb{R}^2$ to $\mathbb{R}^2$ given by $T(\mathbf{v}_1)=\mathbf{v}_1$ and $T(\mathbf{v}_2)= \mathbf{0}$.
(a) Write down the matrix for $T$ in the new basis $\beta$. (You should be able to do this directly from the definition of $T$.)
(b) Use this to write down the matrix for $T$ in the standard basis.
So, the matrix to convert a vector from $\beta$ to the standard basis is
$$ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2\\ 2 & -1 \end{bmatrix} .$$
As such, the matrix to convert a vector from the standard basis to $\beta$ is
$$ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2\\ 2 & -1 \end{bmatrix}^{-1} = \begin{bmatrix} 1/5 & 2/5 \\ 2/5 & -1/5 \end{bmatrix} $$
Converting $\mathbf{v}_1$ and $\mathbf{v}_2$ into $\beta$ is done in the following manner,
$$ \begin{bmatrix} 1/5 & 2/5 \\ 2/5 & -1/5 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 1\\ 2 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 1\\ 0 \end{bmatrix} $$
$$ \begin{bmatrix} 1/5 & 2/5 \\ 2/5 & -1/5 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 2\\ -1 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 0\\ 1 \end{bmatrix}. $$
Which, in the transformation, gives $T_{\beta} (1,0) = (1,0)$ and $T_{\beta}(0,1)=(0,0)$. So the matrix for $T$ in the basis $\beta$ is
$$ A= \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}. $$
Now, I am not sure if what I have done is correct. In any case, how do I proceed with (b)? Thanks for any help. I think I am a bit mixed up.
