# In direct products of $n$ groups, do we also prove conditions for a group to be abelian or not? [duplicate]

If we let $G_1,...,G_n$ be groups,

When proving that the direct product $G_1 \times .... \times G_n$ is abelian if and only if each of $G_1,...,G_n$ is abelian, can someone please help me Im concerned about whether it should also prove that it holds for the conditions of a group to be abelian(inverse, unit element ...) or just prove straightforward that left hand side is true iff right hand side is?

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## marked as duplicate by Seirios, Gerry Myerson, YACP, Alexander Gruber♦, Hagen von EitzenFeb 9 '13 at 9:19

You can see this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/292004/… –  Seirios Feb 9 '13 at 8:42
Thank you Seirios, I have seen this question but is still not so clear to me. –  Faye Feb 9 '13 at 8:58

First, assume that the direct product $G_{1}\times\cdots\times G_{n}$ is abelian, and then show that each of $G_{1},\ldots, G_{n}$ must also be abelian. (Hint: Find a homomorphism from the direct product onto an arbitrary $G_{i}$ and use that to help with the proof.)
Second, assume that all of $G_{1},\ldots, G_{n}$ are abelian, and show that the direct product $G_{1}\times\cdots\times G_{n}$ must be abelian. (Hint: Just use the definitions. What does a typical element of $G_{1}\times\cdots\times G_{n}$ look like?)
Great, so its just using the definitions for the direct products of $n$ groups and not prove the axioms for a group to be abelian. Right. Cheers. –  Faye Feb 9 '13 at 9:01