Tell me more ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Let $a_n,b_n$ be 2 arbitrary sequences of real numbers. Is there any $C^\infty$ function $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ such that for any $n$: $$f^{(n)}(0)=a_n$$

$$f^{(n)}(1)=b_n$$

How about complex analytic functions? (I think the answer is no for complex functions)

share|improve this question
3  
A complex analytic function is entirely determined by all its derivatives in a point. Therefore the sequences $\{a_n\}_n$ and $\{b_n\}_n$ depend mutually one on the other in case $f$ is required to be analytic. – AndreasT Feb 6 at 14:49
2  
In the case of $C^\infty$-functions, the $a_n$ and $b_n$ can be chosen completely independently, because you can glue $C^\infty$-functions together with a partition of unity. So your question is reduced to the problem of finding $f$ such that $f^{(n)}(0)=a_n$ for all $n$. – Daan Michiels Feb 6 at 14:51
For analytic functions the answer is no in general, no matter whether they are complex or real valued. – AndreasT Feb 6 at 14:51
Real or complex analytic, the answer is no. Take $a_n=(n!)^2$ and think about the radius of convergence of $\sum \frac{a_n}{n!}x^n$. – julien Feb 6 at 14:51
$C^\infty$ need not be analytic. – CutieKrait Feb 6 at 14:58

1 Answer

up vote 4 down vote accepted

For smooth functions, this is a version of Whitney's extension theorem.

For analytic functions, the answer is 'no' as already stated in the comments. It's not even true for one point.

share|improve this answer
Adding a bit to the last point on analytic functions, if we ignore $(b_n)$, a necessary but insufficient condition is $\limsup\sqrt[n]{|a_n|}<\infty$. A sufficient but unnecessary condition is $\limsup\sqrt[n]{|a_n|}=0$, if we're only talking about real analytic functions. In the complex analytic case where $f:\mathbb C\to\mathbb C$ is entire, the last condition would also be necessary. – Jonas Meyer Feb 6 at 15:40
I don't understand what Whitney says. So such $C^\infty$ function exists?! – CutieKrait Feb 6 at 18:37
1  
@CutieKrait: Yes. – mrf Feb 6 at 20:01

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.