Here all rings are assumed to lie in the category $\cal C$ of commutative rings with identity, and ${\cal C} (\ R\ ,\ S\ )$ is the set of all ring homomorphisms $F$ from $R$ to $S$ for which $F(1_R)=F(1_S)$. Then $F\in{\mathcal C}(\ R\ ,\ S)$ induces an $R$-module sructure on $S$. Since the functor $\otimes_R$ is right exact, it is not difficult to see that $$S\otimes_RS \cong S\cong S\otimes_SS {\mathrm{\ as \ }} R{\mathrm{-algebras}} \iff \left(S\left/{\mathrm{image}}(F)\right.\right)\otimes_RS=0.\tag{ *} $$
Intuitively, these equivalent conditions seem to show that, for $s_1,\ s_2\ \in S$, the product $s_1 \cdot s_2\in S$ is determined completely by $F(R)$, and just as for localizations, this should show that the equivalent conditions in $(*)$ should also be equivalent to other special statements.
My question if the following: please give, by a reference or a proof or a counterexample to each of the two directions of the following conjecture: $$ S\otimes_RS\cong S \iff F \mathrm{\ is\ a\ flat\ epimorphism\ in\ the \ category \ \mathcal{C}.} $$