This question emerged from a discussion on my previous question Determining quickly whether this Integer Linear Program has any solution at all, which I would like to elaborate separately.
I am trying to determine whether a solution exists for $$ \begin{aligned} A\mathbf{x} &\geq \mathbf{b} &\text{where}\quad \mathbf{x} &\in \mathbb{Z}^m,\ \mathbf{x}\geq\mathbf{0},\ \\ && \mathbf{b} &\in \mathbb{R}^n,\ \mathbf{b}\geq\mathbf{0},\ \\ && A&\in \mathbb{R}^{n\times m}\ . \end{aligned} $$ I postulate that in this particular case, if a solution exists for the relaxed constraint $\mathbf{x} \in \mathbb{R}^m,\ \mathbf{x}\geq\mathbf{0}$, an integer solution always exists as well.
The proof would go somewhat like this: $A\mathbf{x}$ spans a pointed convex cone $C_a$ from the origin. The criterion $\mathbf{y} \geq \mathbf{b}$ implies a cone $C_b$ originating at $\mathbf{b}$, with the particular trait that if the two cones intersect, every ray in $C_a$ which intersects $C_b$ will intersect exactly one side of $C_b$, i.e. it will enter $C_b$ but never leave it. This should, in turn, imply that there must exist an $\mathbf{x} \in \mathbb{Z}^m,\ \mathbf{x}\geq\mathbf{0}$ so that $A\mathbf{x} \geq \mathbf{b}$.
Obviously that is not a proof, and anything but formal. But maybe someone could enlighten me on how such a formal proof could be constructed – or maybe, in case I'm altogether wrong, provide a counterexample? Thanks in advance!