Show that there is no distribution $f \in D'(\mathbb{R})$ such that \begin{equation} f(\phi)=\int e^{1/x^2}\phi(x)dx \end{equation} for every $\phi \in C_{0}^{\infty}(\mathbb{R})$ with $supp(\phi) \subset \mathbb{R}-\{0\}$. Thank you.
I actually found a sequence of test functions $\psi_{n}=e^{-1/(1-x)(x-1/n)}(1-x)^n$ such that $f(\psi_n)$ do not tend to $0$, but I don't know how to prove that $\psi_n$ tend to $0$ in $D(\mathbb{R})$, i.e. in the test functions sense (clearly the boundedness of the supports is not the problem, but the uniform convergence of all derivatives is). Clearly, $\psi_n$ tend to $0$ a.e., but this is not enough.