Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Does anyone know if the notion of a Dirac measure was named after P.A.M. Dirac? If yes, did he actually introduce it, or is it because integration w.r.t. a Dirac measure does what the so-called Dirac delta function is supposed to be used for?

share|improve this question
1  
yes of course. it is very likely however that he didn't know any measure theory at all, and distribution theory neither (in fact it was developed by schwartz in the 1950's). –  Karl Jan 29 '13 at 17:12
add comment

1 Answer

Yes, the Dirac measure is so named because it performs the same action as Dirac's "delta function." I don't believe Dirac used the measure theory formalism, however - he was a physicist.

share|improve this answer
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.