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Does anyone know if the notion of a Dirac measure was named after P.A.M. Dirac? If yes, did he actually introduce it, or is it because integration w.r.t. a Dirac measure does what the so-called Dirac delta function is supposed to be used for?

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yes of course. it is very likely however that he didn't know any measure theory at all, and distribution theory neither (in fact it was developed by schwartz in the 1950's). –  Karl Jan 29 '13 at 17:12
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Yes, the Dirac measure is so named because it performs the same action as Dirac's "delta function." I don't believe Dirac used the measure theory formalism, however - he was a physicist.

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