Let $f$ be a function which maps $\mathbb{Q}^{+}\to\mathbb{Q}^{+}$. And it satisfies $$ \left\{ \begin{array}{l} f(x)+f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)=1\\ f(2x)=2f(f(x)) \end{array}\right. $$ Show that $f\left(\frac{2012}{2013}\right)=\frac{2012}{4025}$.
I tried to prove that $f(x)=\frac{x}{x+1}$(which satisfies all these comditions), but failed.
So I tried induction:
Surely, $f(1)=\frac{1}{2}$ by $f(1)+f(1/1)=1$.
By $f(2)=2f\left(f(1)\right)=2f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)$ ,we know $f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=\frac{1}{3},f(2)=\frac{2}{3}$.
Note that $f(1)=2f\left(f\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\right)$, we have $f\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)=\frac{1}{4}$.
By $f(4)=2f(f(2))=2f\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)$ as well as $f\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)=2f\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)$, we know $f\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)=\frac{1}{5},f\left(\frac{2}{3}\right)=\frac{2}{5},f(4)=\frac{4}{5}.$
Unfortunately, these procedures seems to have no similarity, and the larger the denominator, the more complex the procedure is. Is there any hints or solutions? Thanks for attention!