I was reading Paul Bernays’ Axiomatic Set Theory recently; in the book, Bernays gives the following definition of ‘ordinal number’.
\begin{align} \text{On}(\alpha) \stackrel{\text{def}}{\iff} &(\forall x)(\forall y)(((x \in y) \land (y \in \alpha)) \implies (x \in \alpha)) \land \\ &(\forall x)(\forall y)(((x \in \alpha) \land (y \in \alpha) \land (x \neq y)) \implies ((x \in y) \lor (y \in x))) \land \\ &(\forall x)(((x \subseteq \alpha) \land (x \neq \varnothing)) \implies (\exists y)((y \in x) \land (y \cap x = \varnothing))). \end{align}
There is nothing wrong with this straightforward definition, of course. Rather, the problem is that a few pages later, Bernays wishes to say that ‘$ x $ is an ordinal’ and does so by writing ‘$ \text{On}(x) $’. In my opinion, this is an incorrect way of doing things because $ x $ is already a bound variable in the definition above.
More generally, when one defines new predicate symbols from those that come with a given first-order theory $ T $, must we be careful not to use, with these new symbols, variables that already appear bound in the definitions? Or can we afford to be a little sloppy and just use any variables that happen to be convenient for the occasion at hand?

