We can do the problem by using Laplace transformation and also convolution of two functions.
As you noted, the sequence $E_{n+1}(t)=1+\int_0^{t}E_n(k)dk$ is convergent. So if $E_n(t)\to E(t)$ when $n\to\infty$ then we can have: $$E(t)=1+\int_0^{t}E(k)dk$$ According to what we knoe from convolution of two functions, we can write the latter identity as: $$E(t)=1+\int_0^{t}E(k)dk=1+1*E(t)$$ so we are led to the following ODE: $$E(t)=1+1*E(t)$$ Now take the Laplace of both sides and let $L(E(t))=Y$: $$Y=L(1+1*E(t))=\frac{1}{s}+\frac{1}{s}\times Y$$ So $Y=\frac{1}{s-1}$. This means that $E(t)=L^{-1}(\frac{1}{s-1})=\exp(t)$ .
Edit: Or, again we have : $$E(t)=1+\int_0^{t}E(k)dk$$ Differential from both sides, so: $$E'(t)=E(t)$$ a first order differential equation. It is separable and by solving it, you get $$\frac{d(E(t))}{E(t)}=dt$$ and so we have $E(t)=\exp(t)+C$. If you satisfy te condition you were given you will get $c=0$.