Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

Let $X$ be a Banach space and $f_t \in X^*$ for each $t \in [0,t_0]$. Suppose that $$\int_0^{t_0} f_t(x) = 0$$ for all $x \in X$.

1) Does it make sense to write $\int_0^{t_0}f_t = 0$?

2) If so, does this follow from the above property?

Thanks

share|cite|improve this question
2  
Are you familiar with the Bochner or Pettis integral? – Nate Eldredge Jan 18 '13 at 18:32
    
@NateEldredge Yes, sort of. I wonder if the expression I write above in 1) makes sense though. – george.s Jan 18 '13 at 18:33

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.