Despite many attempts, no one at StackOverflow has succeeded in solving that old question about proving a deceptively simple-looking inequality.
I propose now a weaker and slightly simpler inequality (no more squares) which may perhaps be easier to prove.
Let $x_1,x_2, \ldots ,x_n$ be positive numbers whose product is $1$. Prove or find a counterexample :
$$ \prod_{k=1}^n \big(\frac{1+x_k}{2}\big) \leq \bigg( \frac{x_1+x_2+x_3+ \ldots x_n}{n}\bigg)^{n-1} $$
(this inequality follows from the old one by putting $x_i=a_i^2$ and using Cauchy-Schwarz).