I'm working on a problem dealing with convergence in distribution of a sequence of random variables (in particular, $1/n$ times the maximum of $n$ Cauchy random variables) and have ended up with needing to take the limit of $$\left(\frac{\text{tan}^{-1}(nt)}{\pi}+\frac{1}{2} \right)^n $$ as $n\rightarrow \infty$.
I tried rewriting it, for example, as $$\frac{1}{2^n}\left(\frac{n\cdot2\text{tan}^{-1}(nt)/\pi}{n}+1 \right)^n $$ hoping to get something that looks like $e$, but haven't really been able to come up with anything.