Let $n\in \mathbb Z, n\ne 0$. Prove that $ \mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$-module $\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ has a basis, but $\mathbb Z$-module $\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ hasn't any basis. Hope everyone help me with that. Thanks.
Tell me more
×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for
people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.
|
If you view $M = \mathbb Z / n \mathbb Z$ as module over $R = \mathbb Z / n \mathbb Z$ the element $1$ will form a basis: let $k \in \mathbb Z / n \mathbb Z$. Then $k = k \cdot 1$. On the other hand, if the ring acting on $M$ is $R = \mathbb Z$ then any subset of $\mathbb Z / n \mathbb Z$ will be linearly dependent, just multiply by $n$: for example, $1 \cdot n = 0$. |
|||
|
