Let's think that we have a random variable $X \sim N(0,1)$. And is it true that quantile(let's call it z) z($\alpha$/2) = - z($1- \alpha/2$)?
Tell me more
×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for
people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.
|
|
|
Yes, that is true for any distribution that is symmetric around zero. |
|||
|
|
Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged statistics or ask your own question.
