This is what I have so far. I think it is the absolute value signs that are throwing me off. By the definition of derivatives,
$$ f'(0) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac {f(0 +h) - f(0)} {h}= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac {f(h)} {h}\\ $$
But now what? Since $f(0)=0$ and as $h$ tends to $0$, doesn't the the derivative read $0/0$? I know that I should be getting the left and the right hand limit to be different at zero. I am just failing to carry the rest of the proof through. Will appreciate any help.