I think this is probably a very easy question but I haven't worked with $\sigma$-algebras in depth for a long time now so am finding myself a little rusty. Would be very grateful if someone could give me a (careful) proof of the following (I'm pretty sure it's true!). I guess I'm missing the right way of characterising the elements of the join of two $\sigma$-algebras appropriately.
Let $M_t$ be a martingale with respect to the filtration $\mathcal{F}_t$ on some probability space $(\Omega, \mathcal{F}, P)$. Assume that $\mathcal{G}_t \subseteq \mathcal{F}$ where for each $t \geq 0$, $\mathcal{G}_t$ is independent of $\mathcal{F}_t$ and let $\mathcal{H}_t := \mathcal{F}_t \vee \mathcal{G}_t$. Then $M_t$ is also a martingale with respect to $\mathcal{H}_t$.
Thanks!
