Let $\Lambda$,$\Lambda'$ be two lattice in $\mathbb{C}$ and $m\neq 0\in\mathbb{C}$ satisfying $$ m\Lambda\subset\Lambda' $$
The, the book I'm reading says that by the theory of finite Abelian groups there exists a basis $\{\omega_1,\omega_2\}$ of $\Lambda$' and positive integers $n_1,n_2$ such that $\{n_1\omega_1,n_2\omega_2\}$ is a basis of $m\Lambda$.
I wonder which theorem is it using to deduce such conclusion? There is even no finite Abelian groups there.
update:
I think the author means theory of finitely-generated Abelian groups, doesn't him?