Tell me more ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

I'm a novice to analysis but I need to understand the following example. Any help would be greatly appreciated. This might be of interest to some because it gives a way of quantifying changes in eigenspaces as the index of a Fredholm operator.

Let $\alpha: (-\infty,\infty) \to Sym^2(\Bbb{R}^n)^\vee$ be a path to the space of symmetric $n\times n$ real matrices such that $\alpha$ is constant near $-\infty$, and constant near $\infty$. I'll denote these two constant values by $\alpha(\pm \infty)$. Consider the differential operator

$$ d_\alpha(X):= {\partial_s}X + \alpha(s)X$$

which takes a path $X: \Bbb R \to \Bbb R^n$ and outputs another path $d_\alpha X$. I declare the domain to be the space of $W^{1,2}$ maps $X: \Bbb R \to \Bbb R^n$, and naturally the target is the space of $L^2$ maps. (Here $W^{1,2}$ is the Sobolev space of $L^2$ maps whose first derivatives are $L^2$ too.) To calculate the index of $d_\alpha$, I further expand the domain by taking the direct sum with the finite-dimensional vector space spanned by $X$ of the form $$ X(s) = \exp(-s \lambda ) v $$ where $\lambda$ is a negative eigenvalue of $\alpha(\infty)$ and $v$ is an eigenvector for $\lambda$. One easily sees that $d_\alpha X$ indeed lands in $L^2$ so we have an operator $$ \tilde d_\alpha: W^{1,2}(\Bbb R , \Bbb R^n) \oplus \{(e^{-s \lambda} v)\} \to L^2(\Bbb R , \Bbb R^n). $$

Now, I want to prove three things:

(1) that the kernel of this operator is finite-dimensional, and identified with the negative eigenvalue eigenspace of $\alpha(-\infty)$,

(2) that this map is surjective, and

(3) that as a result, $\text{index}(d_\alpha) = \dim \sigma_-(\alpha(-\infty)) -\dim \sigma_-(\alpha(\infty))$, where $\sigma_-$ is the space of vectors with negative eigenvalues.

Here's how I've gone about proving these statements, but I'm stuck in all claims.

(1) To see this, let $\{v_i\}$ be an eigenbasis for $\alpha(-\infty)$ and $\lambda_i$ the corresponding eigenvalues, writing $X(s) = \sum x_i(s) v_i$ near $-\infty$. Then the equation $\tilde d_\alpha = 0$ breaks into first-order ODEs in one variable: $$ \partial_s x_i + \lambda_i x_i = 0. $$ This has the obvious solutions $x_i(s) = \exp(-s \lambda_i)v_i$, but -- to be in $W^{1,2}$ -- $\lambda_i$ must be a negative eigenvalue. (Otherwise the integral $\int_{-\infty}^s |X(s)|^2$ will blow up.)

I now want to say that, since we have identified what a solution $X$ must look like near $-\infty$, by the existence of first-order ODEs, every solution near $-\infty$ extends to a full solution, and by uniqueness of first-order ODEs, this determines all solutions as in one-to-one correspondence with the space of all eigenvectors of $\alpha(-\infty)$ with negative eigenvalue. Here is my question: Does the usual proof of uniqueness and existence of solutions guarantee that my solutions will indeed be in $W^{1,2}$? If you have a reference (or a quick proof) that the $L^2$ norms of both $X$ and its derivative are bounded, I'd be very grateful. Note that $\alpha$ is constant near $\pm \infty$, so its values and derivatives are bounded, but I'm not sure if this is enough.

(2) Let $Y(s)$ be some $L^2$ path. We want to exhibit $X(s)$ such that $\tilde d_\alpha X = Y$. This time, take an eigenbasis for $\alpha(\infty)$, calling it $w_i$, with corresponding eigenvalues $\nu_i$. Again the equation splits into the components of $w_i$ and we are left to solve the first-order ODE $$ \partial_s x_i + \nu_i x_i = y_i. $$ Using the usual tricks from calculus, we see that a solution to this is given by $$ x_i(s) = {\int_{s_0}^s y_i(t) e^{\nu_i t} dt \over e^{\nu_i s} }. $$ One can extend this to a full solution . Again, my question is: How can one guarantee that such a solution is in $W^{1,2}$? And does it require a clever addition of a function of the form $\exp(-\nu_is)w_i$ to exhibit an $L^2$ solution?

(3) To see this, I can just add the indices of each Fredholm operator in the composition $$ W^{1,2}(\Bbb R , \Bbb R^n) \to W^{1,2}(\Bbb R , \Bbb R^n) \oplus \text{span}(e^{-s \lambda} v) \to L^2(\Bbb R , \Bbb R^n). $$

Is there a more clever way of seeing this, or a more natural way?

share|improve this question

1 Answer

An interesting question. My answer is far from complete; I hope to find time to return to it tomorrow. To begin with, let's note that $d_\alpha$ folds the direct sum $W^{1,2}\oplus W$ (where $W$ is the set of exponentials defined above) by addition. In other words, the domain of $d_\alpha$ is really the elementwise sum $Z=W^{1,2} + W$, which consists of all functions that can be written as an element of $W$ plus an element of $W^{1,2}$. This decomposition is unique when it exists.

It seems that one of the following should be true: either $\alpha(\infty)$ is invertible, or $W$ also includes the eigenfunctions for eigenvalue $0$. This will come up at the end of next paragraph.

(1) Let's introduce cut-offs $a<b$ such that $\alpha(s)=\alpha(-\infty)$ when $s\le a$ and $\alpha(s)=\alpha(\infty)$ when $s\ge b$. We are looking for functions $X\in Z$ such that $X'(s)=-\alpha(s)X(s)$. As long as $\alpha$ is continuous, the standard existence theorem gives continuously differentiable solutions on $\mathbb R$. Thus, the issue of $X\in W^{1,2}(\mathbb R)$ amounts to its behavior near infinity. You already analyzed the situation near $-\infty$, i.e., in the range $(-\infty,a)$: every solution is a sum of exponentials and in order to be in $W^{1,2}$ we must have decaying exponentials only. In the range $(b,\infty)$ the solution $X$ also decomposes into exponentials. The decaying ones are in $W^{1,2}$ and the rest we included in $W$. Hence, $X\in Z$. I believe this completes the description of the kernel of $d_\alpha$.

(2) I think for surjectivity you also should begin with the interval $(-\infty,a)$. Solve the constant-coefficient equation with initial condition $X(-\infty)=0$; since the solution is given by an explicit integral involving an $L^2$ function, it is in $W^{1,2}(-\infty,a)$. In the positive direction, on $(a,\infty)$, it should be possible to decompose $X$, using its integral representation, into $W$ and $W^{1,2}$ parts.

share|improve this answer

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.