I have the following statement that I'm trying to prove:
Assume that $f,g: \mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{\ge0}$.
If $f(n) \ge g(n)$ then $\lceil f(n) \rceil \ge \lceil g(n) \rceil $.
I have a kind of proof. But it is ugly (by using $f(n) - g(n) \ge 0$ and this will also mean $\lceil f(n) - g(n) \rceil \ge 0$, then check for different conditions, e.g. if the difference less than or equal to 1 etc.) and I'm sure there is a much simpler and more elegant way to prove this. But I couldn't figure out and seeking some help.
Edit: I'm not sure if it will help for elegant proof but f and g are also eventually non-decreasing function.
