The condition $f(1)=1$ is usually included in the definition of a ring homomorphism, when the (IMHO more common) convention that rings must have units is adopted. You want to rule out mappings like
$$
x\mapsto\pmatrix {x&0\cr0&0\cr}
$$
from being a homomorphism from, say, the reals to 2x2 real matrices.
Similar things might otherwise also happen between mappings between commutative rings (Atiyah's context). For example, the mapping $f:x\mapsto 3x$ from $\mathbb{Z}_6$ to itself does satisfy the conditions $f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b)$ and $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)$. The latter condition follows from the congruence $3^3\equiv 3\pmod 6$.
More generally, if a commutative ring $R$ has an idempotent, i.e. an element $e$ that satisfies the relation $e^2=e$, then the mapping $x\mapsto xe$ satisfies both conditions
$f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b)$ and $f(ab)=f(a)f(b)$ for all $a,b\in R$.
As you have seen there are several examples proving that the condition $f(1)=1$ does not follow from the other requirements of a ring homomorphism. Not even in the case, when $f(1)\neq0$.
Commenting a little bit as to why we (or at least Atiyah) want to rule out the mappings between rings that respect the binary operations, but don't map 1 to 1. In several parts of algebra emphasis is on modules over a ring. There it is essential that 1 acts as the identity mapping on the module. We also want to be able pull back the module structure as follows. If $M$ is an $S$-module and $f:R\rightarrow S$ is a ring homomorphism, we often want to turn $M$ into an $R$-module by the rule $r*m=f(r)m$. If we didn't know that $f(1_R)=1_S$, then we would need to worry, whether multiplication by $1_R$ is the identity mapping on $M$.
There may be several other reasons. The above is the first that occurred to me, because it really is everywhere in applications of modules. I guess it is possible to have a context, where this argument is not pressing, and then you can choose to work with a different definition.