The Möbius inversion formula says given two arithmetic functions $\hat{g}(k)$ and $g(k)$ related by $$\sum_{d\mid k}\hat{g}(d)=g(k)$$ Then $$\sum_{d\mid k}\mu(d)g\left(\frac{k}{d}\right)=\hat{g}(k)$$ Can someone give me a very elementary proof of this?
I don't know anything about analytic number theory, though I know the definition of the Möbius function, and have used it before with out ever reading to deeply into it for example: I know that, $\frac{x}{1-x}=x+x^2+x^3+x^4+\cdots$ And that if I subtract the even powers I get, $\frac{x}{1-x}-\frac{x^2}{1-x^2}=x+x^3+x^5+x^7+x^9+\cdots$ And then If I subtract the the powers that are multiples of 3 I get, $\frac{x}{1-x}-\frac{x^2}{1-x^2}-(\frac{x^3}{1-x^3}-\frac{x^6}{1-x^6})=x+x^5+x^7+x^{11}+\cdots$ Continuing in this matter one sees we are essentially yielding combinations of the original sum where the argument is a combination of distinct primes, and the coefficients are determined by weather or not the number of primes is even or odd. So by the definition of the Möbius function I can easily see, $\sum_{k=1}^\infty\frac{\mu(k)x^k}{1-x^k}=x$, although the first theorem I mentioned doesn't seem so obvious to me, and so I would appreciate a simple proof.

