Let $P$ be a probability function. It satisfied probability axioms. Can we deduce from it that if $P(A)=0$ then $A=\emptyset $ ?
- Anybody can ask a question
- Anybody can answer
- The best answers are voted up and rise to the top
No, e.g. if $P$ is the Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$ then it is a probability measure, but $P(A) = 0$ for any countable $A$. One may even go further and say that $P(C) = 0$ when $C$ is a Cantor set, which is known to be uncountable. I would really advise you check out this question.