Why doesn't it make sense? What you have written is correct. In fact,
$$0 \leq \dfrac{a^n}{1+a^n} \leq a^n$$ is true for all $a \geq 0$. Hence, if $a < 1$, we have that $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{a^n}{1+a^n} = 0$$
EDIT
For $a < 0$, we will split it into three cases.
For $a \in (-1,0)$, we have $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{a^n}{1+a^n} = \dfrac{\lim_{n \to \infty} a^n}{1+ \lim_{n \to \infty} a^n} = 0$$
For $a \in (-\infty,-1)$, we have $$\dfrac{a^n}{1+a^n} = \dfrac1{1+\left(\dfrac1a \right)^n}$$
Hence, $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac{a^n}{1+a^n} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \dfrac1{1+\left(\dfrac1a \right)^n} = \dfrac1{1+\lim_{n \to \infty} \left(\dfrac1a \right)^n} = 1$$
For $a=-1$, for even $n$, we have $$\dfrac{(-1)^{2k}}{1+(-1)^{2k}} = \dfrac12$$
For $a=-1$, for odd $n$, it blows up.
For $a=-1+\epsilon$, for odd $n$, we have $$\lim_{\epsilon \to 0^+} \dfrac{(-1+ \epsilon)^{2k+1}}{1+(-1+ \epsilon)^{2k+1}} = -\infty$$
For $a=-1-\epsilon$, for odd $n$, we have $$\lim_{\epsilon \to 0^+} \dfrac{(-1- \epsilon)^{2k+1}}{1+(-1- \epsilon)^{2k+1}} = +\infty$$