If I have a matrix $A \in R^{(m \times n)}$ with $m \leq n$. All rows in matrix a are linearly independent and therefore $A$ has a full row rank. I can decompose matrix $A$ such that $A = [B|N]$ with $B \in R^{(m \times m)}$ and $N \in R^{(m \times (n-m))}$
How can the following statement in Griffin, C; p70 be justified, "we know that $B$ is invertible since $A$ has a full row rank". $B$ is invertible as comes from having been constructed from $m$ linearly independent columns Griffin, C; p45. Would it be fair to say that, if a $A$ has full row rank, there will therefore always exist some matrix $B$ such that $A=[B|A]$ with $B$ having linearly independent columns and therefore being invertible?
