Let $f:(a,b)\to\mathbb{R}$ be continuous at all $x\in(a,b)$. If $\lim\limits_{x\to b^-}f(x)$ and $\lim\limits_{x\to a^+}f(x)$ exist in $\mathbb R$, how can we prove that $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(a,b)$?
This is my attempt, but I'm just not certain it is correct:
Let $\epsilon>0$. It is clear that $[a+\epsilon,b-\epsilon]\subseteq(a,b)$. It is known that $f(x)$ is continuous on $(a,b)$, so it is uniformly continuous on the bounded interval $[a+\epsilon,b-\epsilon]$. But, $[a+\epsilon,b-\epsilon] \iff (a,b)$. Thus $f$ is uniformly continuous on $(a,b)$.
Is my proof correct? Is there a better way?
