# Probability convergence [closed]

How do we prove the probability of any event would converge into some constant value, for infinite number of trials?

                          P(E) = k
where E -> An event

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## closed as not a real question by TMM, tomasz, Alexander Gruber♦, Asaf Karagila, Chris EagleDec 30 '12 at 16:47

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That's a very vague question. Can you give an example? –  Thomas Andrews Dec 30 '12 at 14:08
I don't think we do. We usually assume that the probability is the same for each trial. Then the sequence of probabilities is the constant sequence, which of course is convergent, but that is not a very illuminating fact. –  Henning Makholm Dec 30 '12 at 14:09
@ThomasAndrews : I have edited it. I was not asking for any particular event. –  Inquisitive Dec 30 '12 at 14:10
I think he might be looking for the proof of the Law of Large Numbers. –  Amzoti Dec 30 '12 at 14:11
@HenningMakholm - If the probability is same for each trial, then would that sequence converge? I don't think so. –  Inquisitive Dec 30 '12 at 14:12