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Can one endow the unit interval $[0,1]$ with a group operation to make it a topological group under its natural Euclidean topology?

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But one can endow $(0,1)$ with such a topology... –  N. S. Dec 18 '12 at 20:07
    
@N.S.: With a topology or an operation? –  Asaf Karagila Dec 18 '12 at 20:09
    
@AsafKaragila Ty, operation... I need my coffee :) –  N. S. Dec 18 '12 at 20:12
    
Couldn't you define an operation on $Y=(-1,1)$ by the homeomorphism $f:\mathbb R\to Y,\ x\mapsto x/(|x|+1)$? It is possible to translate the operation on $\mathbb R$ onto $Y$, right? –  Stefan Hamcke Dec 18 '12 at 20:19
    
Any continuous bijection between $\mathbb R$ and $(0,1)$ should do the trick.. But there is probably something subtle happening, I think: the topology would be the Euclidian topology, but the uniformity which defines this topology is not the same.... –  N. S. Dec 18 '12 at 20:27
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1 Answer

up vote 19 down vote accepted

No. A topological group is homogeneous, and $[0,1]$ is not, since it has the two endpoints. (An open neighborhood of one of the endpoints, like $[0,1/2)$, is not homeomorphic to any open neighborhood of an interior point via a homeomorphism mapping $0$ to the interior point.)

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