Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

If $(X<Y)$ are uniform over the region $\{(x,y): 0\lt |y|\lt x \lt 1\}$ then is this region equavalent: $\{(x,y): -x\lt y\lt x \lt 1\}$. I suppose I will justify my thinking here. If the absolute of $y$ is less than $x$, well this is the same property as $|y|\lt 1=-1\lt y\lt1$. That's my reasoning behind my statement. Is it correct?

share|improve this question
1  
Since $x$ is positive, $y$ almost ranges over the interval $(-x,x)$. Since you specified that $0\lt |y|$, to be more precise $y$ ranges over $(-x,0)\cup (0,x)$. –  André Nicolas Dec 18 '12 at 4:02
    
Neither (probability) nor (probability-theory) in there. –  Did Dec 19 '12 at 16:22

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.