Possible Duplicate:
Zero to zero power
According to Wolfram Alpha:
$0^0$ is indeterminate.
According to google: $0^0=1$
According to my calculator: $0^0$ is undefined
Is there consensus regarding $0^0$? And what makes $0^0$ so problematic?
According to Wolfram Alpha:
According to google: $0^0=1$ According to my calculator: $0^0$ is undefined Is there consensus regarding $0^0$? And what makes $0^0$ so problematic? |
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This question will probably be closed as a duplicate, but here is the way I used to explain it to my students: Since $x^0=1$ for all non-zero $x$, we would like to define $0^0$ to be 1. but ... since $0^x = 0$ for all non-zero $x$, we would like to define $0^0$ to be 0. The end result is that we can't have all the "rules" of indices playing nicely with each other if we decide to chose one of the above options, it might be better if we decided that $0^0$ should just be left as "undefined". |
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One way of looking at it is that there are two different exponentiation operators that are denoted $a^b$:
You can have several more variants. In a monoid, you can define exponentiation $a^n$ where $n$ is a nonnegative integer. In a semigroup, you can define exponentiation where $n$ is a positive integer. In complexes (or an algebraically closed field), you can define multi-valued $a^{p/q}$ for a rational exponent. Cardinals and ordinals have their own exponentiations. The "continuous" exponent can be extended to complex numbers: when $a>0$ then you can define $\exp(b \ln a)$. Yet another exponentiation on complex numbers is multi-valued $\exp(b \operatorname{Ln} a)$. All those operations are different - they have different domains. Mathematicians are unusually sloppy about which exponentiation they are talking about and use context-dependent $a^b$. (Some programming languages have multiple exponentiation operators to deal with this problem.) |
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In set theory, where everything is a set, $0$ is represented by the empty set. Exponentiation of sets $\alpha^\beta$, lets call them cardinalities and write $|\alpha|^{|\beta|}$, is defined to be the cardinality (number of elements) of all functions from $\beta \to \alpha$. If both $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are empty, then there is exactly one function $\varnothing \to \varnothing$, hence $0^0 = 1$. Though this is just a convention, I like how it justifies $0^0 = 1$. |
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The consensus is that if you are going to adopt a convention defining $0^0$, then it should probably be $0^0=1$. The problem is that there is good reason for basic arithmetic operations on real numbers are continuous, and the real and complex exponentiation operators cannot be continuous at $0^0$. The solution, IMO, is to honestly recognize that there are multiple exponentiation operators. All of the cases where the convention $0^0 = 1$ is useful are discrete: e.g. in a power series, where we are interested in monomials with integer exponents. The needs we have for discrete exponents are very different from the needs we have for continuous exponents. |
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The answer is: The meaning is context-sensitive. This is surprising only if you assume that mathematical terms are context-insensitive. They are not. See x^y by Sam Derbyshire. |
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$\forall x \not= 0, x^0 = 1$ $\forall x \not= 0, 0^x = 0$ Those are either definitions or conventions chosen to extend formulas (just like you chose $0!=1$). We can't have both functions $x\mapsto 0^x$ and $x\mapsto x^0$ continuous at $x=0$ no matter how we define $0^0$ Continuous functions are functions that commute with limit, ie $\lim f( x_n) = f( \lim x_n)$ And in this case it doesn't work for at least one of the cases. |
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$0^0=1$, and "$0^0$" is an indeterminate form. The fact that it's a well defined expression in no way conflicts with the fact that it's an indeterminate form. $0^0=1$ because it's an empty product. Multiplying by no number is the same as multiplying by $1$; therefore when one multiplies by no number, the product is $1$. It's indeterminate because one can let the pair $(x,y)$ approach $(0,0)$ along a path that makes the limit of $x^y$ equal to $5$ or to $1$ or to $\infty$, or to any of infinitely many other values. If one approaches $(0,0)$ along any path that remains between two lines of positive slope, then the limit is $1$. If $0^0$ were not equal to $1$, then the familiar expansion $$ e^z= \frac{z^0}{0!} + \frac{z^1}{1!} + \frac{z^2}{z!} + \cdots $$ would fail when $z=0$, since the first term is $\dfrac{0^0}{0!}$. |
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Define $f(x)=x^x$ and compute $\lim_{x\to 0} f(x)$. |
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It is undefined. It can be 1 and 0, depending on how you define exponentiation. Exemple where $ 0^0 = 1 $ Define: $ x^n := 1 *x *x ... x $ when n = 0 $ x^0 = 1$ $ 0^0 = 1$ But consider following definition $ x^n :=lim _{z->n} +x^z $ $ 0^0 = lim_{z->0} + 0^z =lim_{z->0} + 0 = 0 $ |
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$0^0$ can be described as: \begin{align} \lim\limits_{x \to 0^+} x^x = e^{\lim\limits_{x \to 0^+}x\cdot\log(x)} = \left|t = \dfrac{1}{x}\right| & = e^{\lim\limits_{t \to+\infty}\dfrac{\log{\frac{1}{t}}}{t}} \\ = \left|\text{Using L'Hospital's rule.}\right| & = e^{\lim\limits_{t \to+\infty}\dfrac{1}{t}} \\ = \exp\left(\dfrac{1}{\lim\limits_{t \to+\infty} t}\right) & = e^{0} = 1 \end{align} For this case he answer is 1. And! The $0^0$ can be described as: \begin{equation} \lim\limits_{x\to 0^+}\left(\dfrac{\cos{x}}{x}\right)^{\dfrac{\cos{x}}{x}} = \infty \end{equation} and from the other side: \begin{equation} \lim\limits_{x\to 0^-}\left(\dfrac{\cos{x}}{x}\right)^{\dfrac{\cos{x}}{x}} = 0 \end{equation} For this case the two-sided limit didn't exist. I think $0^0$ cannot be defined in existing calculus. |
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