Tell me more ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

EDIT: answer on math overflow http://mathoverflow.net/questions/115691/bernoulli-number-formula-involving-roots-of-taylor-polynomial-of-exp-1/115741#115741

Please prove, give more symbolic or numeric support (counterexample!?), simplify or drop me a reference (or some vague hunch).

We have

$$B_n = n!\sum_r \frac{r^{2n}}{p'_n(r)}$$ where $r$ ranges over the roots of the polynomial $p_n$ and $p_n'$ is the derivative of $p_n$. $B_n$ is the $n$-th bernoulli number.

The polynomial $p_n$ is defined as follows.

$$t_n(x) = \sum_{k=0}^{n+2} \frac{x^k}{k!} -1$$

is the truncated taylor polynomial of $\exp-1$ to power $n+2$.

Then $p_n(x):=x^{n+2}t_n(1/x)$ - like the reciprocal polynomial just without conjugation (though it probably makes no difference if there is conjugation or not - since $p$ is a polynomial with real coefficients and the roots come in conjugate pairs).

Examples (already tested for $n=0..18$ with a symbolic solver and for $n=0..62$ numerically):

$n=0$

$$t_0(x)=\frac{x^2}{2}+x$$

$$p_0(x)=x^2t(1/x)=x^2(\frac{1}{2x^2}+\frac{1}{x})=\frac{1}{2}+x$$

root of $p_0$ is $-1/2$.

$$p_0'(x)=1$$

$$B_0=0!\cdot \frac{(-1/2)^{2\cdot 0}}{1}=1$$

$n=1$

$$t_1(x)=\frac{x^3}{3!}+\frac{x^2}{2!}+x=\frac{x^3}{6}+\frac{x^2}{2}+x$$ $$p_1(x)=x^3t_1(1/x)=x^3(\frac{1}{6x^3}+\frac{1}{2x^2}+\frac{1}{x})=\frac{1}{6}+\frac{x}{2}+x^2$$

Roots of $p_1$ are $$r_{1,2}=-\frac{1}{4}\frac{-}{+}\frac{\sqrt {15}i}{12}$$

We have $$r_{1,2}^2=-\frac{1}{24}\frac{+}{-}\frac{\sqrt{15}i}{24}$$

$$p_1'(x)=2x+\frac{1}{2}$$

so $$\frac{1}{p'_{1}(r_{1,2})}=~\frac{+}{-}\frac{2\sqrt{15}i}{5}$$

$$\frac{r_{1,2}^2}{p'_{1}(r_{1,2})}=-\frac{1}{4}\frac{-}{+}\frac{\sqrt{15}i}{60}$$ $$B_1=1!(\frac{r_{1}^2}{p'_{1}(r_1)}+\frac{r_{2}^2}{p'_{2}(r_2)})=-\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{4}=-\frac{1}{2}$$

share|improve this question
cross-posted to math overflow my first question there! – Peter Sheldrick Dec 7 '12 at 8:24

1 Answer

up vote 0 down vote accepted

Pietro's answer on math overflow sorts this question out.

share|improve this answer

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.