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How can I calculate the following derivative? \begin{align} \frac{\partial\int_{0}^{x_1}f(x_2,y)dy}{\partial x_2} \end{align}

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By the Leibniz Rule, $$\ \ \ \frac{\partial \int_{0}^{x_{1}}f(x_{2},y)dy}{\partial x_{2}}=\int_{0}^{x_{1}}{ \frac{\partial f(x_{2},y)}{\partial x_{2}} dy}$$.

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this doesn't render properly.. –  Sunny88 Dec 6 '12 at 3:34
    
@Jebruho, please do check your LaTeX before you post something... –  DonAntonio Dec 6 '12 at 3:38
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