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I need to prove/disprove the logical equivalences of the following statement using basic equivalences:

p→(q→r) and q→(p→r).

I can do everything apart from the proofs in my work :/

Thank you if you can help!

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up vote 1 down vote accepted

Hint: Use $A\to B = \lnot A\lor B$.

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Worked a treat - thank you :) – Omar Qassem Dec 2 '12 at 13:50

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