Prove/disprove this logical equivalence using basic equivalences?

Question

I need to prove/disprove the logical equivalences of the following statement using basic equivalences:

p→(q→r) and q→(p→r).

I can do everything apart from the proofs in my work :/

Thank you if you can help!

Answer 1

Hint: Use $A\to B = \lnot A\lor B$.