I need to prove/disprove the logical equivalences of the following statement using basic equivalences:
p→(q→r) and q→(p→r).
I can do everything apart from the proofs in my work :/
Thank you if you can help!
Hint: Use $A\to B = \lnot A\lor B$.
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Stack Exchange
By posting your answer, you agree to the
terms of service.
5 months ago