# Why is the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter independent of the circle? [duplicate]

Possible Duplicates:
Why is Euclidean geometry scale-invariant?

Proof that Pi is constant (the same for all circles), without using limits

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## marked as duplicate by Ross Millikan, Chandru1, Qiaochu YuanFeb 26 '11 at 19:38

Did you mean why is the ratio of circumference of a circle to diamter independent of the circle? – Aryabhata Feb 26 '11 at 19:08
What definition of $\pi$ are you using that might make it not a constant? What would cause it to vary? Vote to close as not a real question. – Ross Millikan Feb 26 '11 at 19:09
I think the new version of the question is a good one. – Mike Spivey Feb 26 '11 at 19:28
Duplicate: math.stackexchange.com/questions/23129/… – Qiaochu Yuan Feb 26 '11 at 19:38
@blunders: Take a look at this also: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3198/… – Derek Jennings Feb 26 '11 at 19:47