# How to express inclusion with arrows?

Does$$\forall x \left(1 \stackrel{x}\longrightarrow X\right) \Rightarrow 1 \stackrel{x} \longrightarrow A$$ means $A \subset B$? Is there any better way to express this with arrows?

-
In the category of sets, yes, provided you label morphisms $1 \to X$ by their values. Otherwise false in general. –  Zhen Lin Nov 15 '12 at 17:17
Thank you. What if we replace the 1 with "all separator objects" of $\mathcal{C}$? –  Hooman Nov 15 '12 at 19:11
Please formulate exactly what you mean: as it stands your claim does not generalise. –  Zhen Lin Nov 15 '12 at 19:52
What about (perhaps regular/split) monomorphisms? For what purpose you need it? –  Berci Nov 17 '12 at 14:23
Sorry, now this questions sounds a bit pointless and confusing to me. I am now happy with the axioms for sub-object. –  Hooman Nov 17 '12 at 14:39

So if $A$, $B$ are sets then $A \longrightarrow B$ means we have an inclusion $A \subset B$. We have identity morphism since $A \subset A$ and you can compose $A \subset B$ with $B \subset C$ by transitivity to get $A \subset C$.