I have a wave equation:
$$\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial t^2} = a^2 \frac{\partial^2u}{\partial x^2}.$$
How would I verify that the function $u(x,t)=\sin(x-at)$ satisfies the aforementioned wave equation?
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I have a wave equation: $$\frac{\partial^2u}{\partial t^2} = a^2 \frac{\partial^2u}{\partial x^2}.$$ How would I verify that the function $u(x,t)=\sin(x-at)$ satisfies the aforementioned wave equation? |
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Just derive your $u(x,t)$ using the chain rule until you get the result: $\frac{\partial u}{\partial t} = -a\cos(x-at)$ $\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial t^2} = -a^2\sin(x-at)$ $\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \cos(x-at)$ $\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} = -\sin(x-at)$ Therefore: $\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial t^2} = a^2\frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} $ $-a^2\sin(x-at) = a^2\left(-\sin(x-at)\right) $ $-a^2\sin(x-at) = -a^2\sin(x-at) $ |
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As mentioned in the comments: Plug u into the wave equation, means calculate the second time and space derivatives and see that they are equal. Left-hand-side: $\partial_{tt} u=-a^2\sin(x-at).$ (Here, we apply the chain-rule twice). Right-hand-side: $\partial_{xx} u=-\sin(x-at).$ (Here, the "inner" derivative is 1, so we don't have the factor $a^2$). This means, multiply the rhs by $a^2$ and you get the lhs, the equation is valid. As Fabian mentioned in the comments, this works for arbitrary twice differentiable functions $f$. |
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