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When talking about languages and regular languages.

Can I say that reversal preserved regularity since if the language L is regular, we can generate it by right linear grammar.

Therefore, the reversal language will be the left linear grammar version of L.

Is that true to say?

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Yes, although if you’re writing up a proof, you should offer a little more detail on exactly what you mean by ‘the left linear grammar version’. –  Brian M. Scott Nov 12 '12 at 23:31
    
@BrianM.Scott thank you –  Mike Nov 13 '12 at 2:10
    
You’re welcome. –  Brian M. Scott Nov 13 '12 at 2:24

1 Answer 1

up vote 1 down vote accepted

yes it is regular, to prove this, for any regular language, L, you can find a DFA and by reversing the transitions in the DFA you will get another DFA that accepts the reverse of L.

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By reversing the transitions of a DFA you don't get a DFA but a NFA. But this suffices to prove that the reversal is regular. –  J.-E. Pin Aug 11 '13 at 11:45

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