Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Find and proof an open cover of (0; 1) that has no finite subcover.

I need to find an example and also proof the example.

Thank you.

share|improve this question

1 Answer 1

up vote 4 down vote accepted

$(0,1)=\cup_{n=1}^{\infty}(\frac{1}{n},1-\frac{1}{n})$ is an open cover but has no finite subcover

share|improve this answer
    
To modify this interval to (1,2), would you just add 1 to each of those terms? e.g. (1+$1 \over n$, 2 - $1 \over n$)? –  Nick Sep 24 '13 at 4:51

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.