Take the 2-minute tour ×
Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. It's 100% free, no registration required.

If I know that $x\rightarrow G(x,y)$ is harmonic with respect to y, why $\frac{\partial G}{\partial y}(x,y)$ is also harmonic with respect to y? $x,y\in R^n$.

share|improve this question
    
Why do you write $x \rightarrow G(x,y)?$ –  Will Jagy Nov 2 '12 at 19:28
    
Hint: Show that every harmonic function is infinitely differentiable. –  Alexander Sibelius Nov 2 '12 at 19:29
2  
Probably, you should be explicit about what $x$ and $y$ are (I suspect they are vectors...) and what excatly do you mean by harmonic: with respect to all variables? Being explicit seldom hurts! –  Mariano Suárez-Alvarez Nov 2 '12 at 19:31
    
Hi, I think question is more clear now. I can give more details if you want. –  TheStudent Nov 2 '12 at 19:42
add comment

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.