Is this proof correct? To prove $F(A)\cap F(B)\subseteq F(A\cap B) $ for all functions $F$.
Let any number $y\in F(A)\cap F(B)$. We want to show $y\in F(A\cap B).$
Therefore, $y\in F(A)$ and $y\in F(B)$, by definition of intersection.
By definition of inverse, $y=F(x)$ for some $x\in A$ and $x\in B$
And so, $y=F(x)$ for some $x\in A\cap B$
And therefore, $y\in F(A\cap B)$
I have a gut feeling deep down that something is wrong. Can anyone help me pinpoint the mistake? I am not sure why am I having so much problems with functions. Am I not thinking in the right direction?