does $B - (A \cup C) = B \cup (A' \cup C')$?
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Hint: To see that this is not true, take $$M=\{a,b,c,d,e,f,g\}$$ as the mother set and $A=\{a,b\}, B=\{a,c,d\}, C=\{c,e\}$ and evaluate both sides of your so-called equation. For giving a formal set theatrical fact use @Martin's answer. |
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$B-(A\cup C)=B\cap(A\cup C)'$ (this is basically the definition) $(A\cup C)'=A'\cap C'$ (by de Morgan) Hence $B-(A\cup C)=B\cap A'\cap C'$. |
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$and symbols like setminus are used with backslash ``. I've edited your post - is this what you originally wanted to write? – Martin Sleziak Oct 30 '12 at 13:16