# What will happen when Ax.Inf is replaced to its negation in ZFC? [duplicate]

Possible Duplicate:
What are the consequences if Axiom of Infinity is negated?

In ZFC, if we replace Ax.Inf to such a statement that every set is finite, then does this theory satisfiable?

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## marked as duplicate by Asaf Karagila, rschwieb, Chris Eagle, Ross Millikan, ThomasOct 20 '12 at 14:47

Yes: $V_\omega$, the set of hereditarily finite sets, is a model of $(\mathrm{ZFC}-\mathrm{Inf})+\lnot\mathrm{Inf}$.
You mean of course (ZFC-Inf)$+\neg$ Inf. – Hagen von Eitzen Oct 20 '12 at 13:02