Given that $y'(x)+p(x)y(x)\geq 0$ and $y(x_0)\geq 0$, how does one go about showing that $y(x)\geq0$ for all $x\in [x_0,\infty)$
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Define $b=y'+py$, so that you have, well, $y'+py=b$ and $b\geq0$. Solve the inhomogeneous equation for $y$, and use now that $b$ is non-negative. |
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Can't one reason in the following manner, whitout introducing the function $b$? Multiplying both sides of the differential inequality $y^\prime (x)+p(x)y(x)\geq 0$ by the positive function $M(x):= \exp \left( \int_{x_0}^x p(t)\ \text{d} t\right)$ yields: $y^\prime (x) M(x) +y(x)\ p(x)M(x) \geq 0$; but $M^\prime(x)=p(x) M(x)$, hence the last inequality rewrites: $\frac{\text{d}}{\text{d} x} \left[ y(x) M(x)\right]\geq 0$, hence the function $y(x)M(x)$ (which is differentiable in $]x_0,+\infty[$, for it is product of differentiable functions) increases in $[x_0,+\infty[$; this fact implies: $y(x)M(x)\geq y(x_0)M(x_0)=y(x_0)\geq 0$ and a fortiori $y(x)\geq 0$ for all $x\geq x_0$, which is the claim. NOTE: The auxiliary funcion $M(x)$ is the reciprocal of the unique solution to the homogeneous ODE: $\phi^\prime (x)+p(x)\phi(x)=0$ which satisfies $\phi(x_0)=1$. So $M(x)$ is not appeared out of nowhere; in fact the problem you're dealing with can be read as a comparison result between the solution and supersolutions of the problem:
in the following way: each supersolution of problem 1 is greater than its unique solution in $[x_0,+\infty[$. P.S.: I didn't check the date before answering. I don't know if this can be considered as necroposting or doesn't matter at all... I'm sorry anyway, next time I'll pay more attenction. |
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