Is there a difference between $i$ mod $p$, and $i$ (mod $p$)?
To give context, this is the original problem:
- if $i \geq 0$ what is $i$ (mod $p$)?
edit: Forgot to add the parentheses to example
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Is there a difference between $i$ mod $p$, and $i$ (mod $p$)? To give context, this is the original problem:
edit: Forgot to add the parentheses to example |
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The "mod" symbol is used two ways. In one way it modifies the assertion that two quantities are equivalent: $$23\equiv1903\pmod {10}$$ This means that 23 and 1903 are equivalent, mod 10. In general we say that $a\equiv b\pmod p$ if $a-b$ is a multiple of $p$. Used the other way, it is used as a binary operator to represent the remainder after a division: $$\text{"The value of }1903\bmod 10 \text{ is } 3\text{"}$$ And in general, if $a = pk+b$, with $0\le b < p$, then $a\bmod p$ is equal to $b$, the remainder when $a$ is divided by $p$. It should usually be a number at least 0 and strictly less than $p$. The two notations are closely related: if $a\bmod p = b$, then $a\equiv b\pmod p$. $\TeX$ and MathJax have separate notations for the two uses, because they are typeset a little differently. |
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