1) $(P \vee Q) \Rightarrow R$
2) $(P \Rightarrow R) \wedge (Q \Rightarrow R)$
Explain why 1 and 2 are equivalent statements.
Attempt at solution:
I converted 1 and 2 to these statements which are equivalent:
1) $(P \cup Q) \subseteq R$
2) $(P \subseteq R) \cap (Q \subseteq R)$
This now seems logical but I dont know how to prove it? Any help is appreciated, thanks.
EDIT: I should have said truth tables are not necessary.