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As the topic, proving that $(\operatorname{cl} P)'=P'$, where $P'$ means the derived set.

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What is your question exactly? – martini Oct 4 '12 at 11:40
prove the above equality – Mathematics Oct 4 '12 at 11:41

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2 Answers

The result is not true in completely general spaces. However, it is true in $T_1$ spaces, so I’ll assume that we’re working in a $T_1$ space.

$\newcommand{\cl}{\operatorname{cl}}$It should be clear that $P'\subseteq(\cl P)'$. To show the opposite inclusion, suppose that $x\in(\cl P)'$. Then every open neighborhood of $x$ contains a point of $(\cl P)\setminus\{x\}$, and we want to show that every open neighborhood of $x$ contains a point of $P\setminus\{x\}$.

Suppose not; then $x$ has an open neighborhood $U$ such that $U\cap P\subseteq\{x\}$. Then either $U\cap P=\varnothing$, or $U\cap P=\{x\}$. If $U\cap P=\varnothing$, then $U\cap\cl P=\varnothing$ (why?), and therefore $x\notin(\cl P)'$; this is a contradiction, so we must have $U\cap P=\{x\}$. In other words, $x$ is an isolated point of $P$. By hypothesis, however, $U$ contains some point $y\in\cl P\setminus\{x\}$. $U\cap P=\{x\}$, so $y\notin P$, and therefore $y\in P'\setminus P$. Now let $V=U\setminus\{x\}$; $\{x\}$ is closed, since the space is $T_1$, so $V$ is an open neighborhood of $y$. But $V\cap P=\varnothing$, contradicting the fact that $y\in\cl P$, so this case is also impossible. Thus, $x$ cannot have an open neighborhood $U$ such that $u\cap P\subseteq\{x\}$, so every open neighborhood of $x$ contains a point of $P\setminus\{x\}$, and $x\in P'$.

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aren't $U$ is an open neighborhood of $x$ instead of $y$? – Mathematics Oct 4 '12 at 11:43
@Mathematics: It’s both: it’s an open neighborhood of every point that it contains. – Brian M. Scott Oct 4 '12 at 11:44
o i see. you mean $U$ is an open interval of $y$ in set clP – Mathematics Oct 4 '12 at 11:48
@Mathematics: No, not at all. First, ‘interval’ may not have meaning, since the space may not be a linearly ordered space. Secondly, $U$ is not contained in $\cl P$. – Brian M. Scott Oct 4 '12 at 11:50
I don't quite get why $U$ is the neighborhood of y – Mathematics Oct 4 '12 at 11:52
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If $x$ is an accumulation point of $P$, then it is also one in $\operatorname{cl}P$, hence $P'\subseteq (\operatorname{cl}P)'$ is clear.

The other direction is not true in general. Consider the two-point pace $X=\{x,y\}$ with indiscrete topology amd $P=\{x\}$. Then $P'=\{y\}$ and $\operatorname{cl}P=X$, hence $(\operatorname{cl}P)'=X\ne\emptyset$.

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i am not sure about your example but Brain has proved it so it should be alright for both direction – Mathematics Oct 4 '12 at 11:55
@Mathematics: No, I made an unconscious assumption about the space. Hagen is right: there are counterexamples in sufficiently ugly spaces, and I need to revise my answer. Hagen: I think that your cluster topology is the indiscrete topology? – Brian M. Scott Oct 4 '12 at 11:57
do you mean that it is not true in general? – Mathematics Oct 4 '12 at 12:01
@BrianM.Scott: now it is :) – Hagen von Eitzen Oct 4 '12 at 12:33

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