Mathematics Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for people studying math at any level and professionals in related fields. Join them; it only takes a minute:

Sign up
Here's how it works:
  1. Anybody can ask a question
  2. Anybody can answer
  3. The best answers are voted up and rise to the top

Possible Duplicate:
$ \lim\limits_{n \to{+}\infty}{\sqrt[n]{n!}}$ is infinite

Please prove: $$ \lim_{n\to \infty}\sqrt[n]{\frac{1}{n!}} = 0 $$

share|cite|improve this question

marked as duplicate by sdcvvc, Rudy the Reindeer, draks ..., rschwieb, Douglas S. Stones Oct 13 '12 at 1:26

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

Have you tried using ? – Zach L. Oct 3 '12 at 12:48
"Please do my homework." Well, at least you were polite... – rschwieb Oct 3 '12 at 12:49
Please show what you have tried or tell us what is causing trouble. This helps to address whatever you don't understand. – robjohn Oct 3 '12 at 17:12
Could someone who has upvoted this question explain why they did so? – Noah Snyder Oct 3 '12 at 17:38
@robjohn: Thank you for telling me this. I'll post more next time I ask. – TheoYou Oct 4 '12 at 14:13
up vote 7 down vote accepted

$$0<\sqrt[n]{\frac{1}{n!}}=\left(1\cdot\frac{1}{2}\cdots\frac{1}{n}\right)^{\frac{1}{n}}\leq\frac{1+\frac{1}{2}+\cdots+\frac{1}{n}}{n}<\frac{1+\ln n}{n}$$

As $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{1+\ln n}{n}=0$, so $\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sqrt[n]{\frac{1}{n!}}=0$

share|cite|improve this answer
Squeeze theorem and aritmetic-mean-geometric-mean inequality used. – mick Oct 3 '12 at 15:50
@mick Also $$\sum_{k=2}^n\frac{1}{k}<\log n$$ – Pedro Tamaroff Oct 6 '12 at 16:25
Right Peter Tamaroff. – mick Oct 6 '12 at 22:13

Hint: When writing out $n!$, you have \[ n! = n \cdot (n-1) \cdots \left\lceil \frac n2\right\rceil \cdots 1 \] so at least $\lfloor \frac n2\rfloor$ of the factors are larger then $\lceil \frac n2\rceil$. So $n! \ge \lceil \frac n2\rceil^{\lfloor \frac n2\rfloor}$.

share|cite|improve this answer

Just try to put n equal to infinity. since 'n' appears in the denominator it will tend to zero.

Please confirm the answer.

share|cite|improve this answer
(Downvoters, be nice.) Since you're new to the site, I suggest you take a look at other answers to see what people upvote. In the general case, it is better if you prove your claim, or at least sketch a proof. In this case, the problem is you get an indeterminate form $$\infty^0$$ Do you see why? – Pedro Tamaroff Oct 6 '12 at 16:34
@fondoflior: No, you cannot deal with it like that. Because the degree is $\frac{1}{n}$ tend to zero too. If your method is feasible, how about $\sqrt[n]\frac{1}{n}$? – Alfred Chern Oct 6 '12 at 16:36

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.