I know that the sine function in the domain $[0,1)$ is surjective, I know that since I was a child, in these days I'm thinking how to prove it formally.
Anyone can help me with this?
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I know that the sine function in the domain $[0,1)$ is surjective, I know that since I was a child, in these days I'm thinking how to prove it formally. Anyone can help me with this? |
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With the geometric definition of sine: For $0<y<1$ the parallel line at distance $y$ to the $x$-axis intersects the unit circle around the origin $O$ at a point $P$ in the first quadrant (admittedly, this fact is also less trivial than at first sight). Let $Q$ be the projection of $P$ on the $x$-axis. Then from triangle $OQP$ we read $\sin\angle QOP = y$. Otherwise (i.e without geometrical reference), the surjectivity is a consequence of the sine function being continuous together with $\sin 0 = 0$ and $\sin\frac\pi2=1$. |
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