I was wondering how to prove that $$\lim_{n\to \infty}\int_{1}^{n}\frac{1}{(x^{2}+1)^{n}}dx\sim \frac{1}{n\cdot 2^{n}}?.$$
This appears to be asymptotic to $\frac{1}{n2^{n}}$, but how to prove it?.
I checked with larger and larger values of n, and it does get closer and closer to $$\frac{1}{n2^{n}}.$$
i.e $$\int_{1}^{10}\frac{1}{(x^{2}+1)^{10}}dx\approx .00009843725636$$ and $$\frac{1}{10\cdot 2^{10}}\approx .00009765625.$$
The larger $n$, the closer they get.
I tried using parts to no avail. I also thought $$\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\binom{-n}{k}x^{2k}=\frac{1}{(1+x^{2})^{n}}$$ may be useful in some manner.
Does anyone have a good idea as to how to prove this?
Thanks
