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Let's calculate the integration

$$\int_{0}^{\infty}\frac{r^{n-1}}{(1+r^2)^{(n+1)/2}}dr.$$

then let $r=\tan\theta$,

according to my book, its result is

$$\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\sin^{n-1}\theta d\theta.$$

but my calculation is

$$\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\cos^{2}\theta \sin^{n-1}\theta d\theta.$$

Is my book wrong?

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Did you forget $dr = \dfrac{1}{\cos^2\theta}d\theta$? –  Jonas Meyer Sep 18 '12 at 3:55
    
yes.you're right.... –  user39843 Sep 18 '12 at 4:35
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1 Answer 1

up vote 4 down vote accepted

The book is right. When you make the substitution $r=\tan\theta$, you have $dr=\sec^2\theta\,d\theta$.

So our integral is equal to $$\int_0^{\pi/2} \frac{\tan^{n-1}\theta}{\sec^{n+1}\theta}\sec^2\theta\,d\theta,$$ which simplifies to the book's expression.

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